Good and evil exist independent of that anthology of old myths found in the Bible.

The Bible is a horrific guide for ethics and morality.

The Bible was Smiths guide for ethics and morality.

 

I do not criticise or judge relationships between consenting adults which are not based on coercion. I agree with you that women were property in the Bible, but I also believe what Jesus said to know them by their fruits.

Would have been nice if Jesus had ended slavery or ended women being property in the Bible.

That would have been nice.

Instead, Jesus condemned those who do not follow Him.

Smiths fruits? Smith testified of Christ.

Smith meets the Biblical standard of “prophet.”

 

I am still waiting for your definition of adultery which will not make Smith an adulterer. Neither have you given any well defined Biblical standard for a prophet other than the one Jesus gave to know them by their fruits.

I gave responses to someone claiming Smith was not a prophet by the Biblical standard—go re-read my OP.

I show that Smith -does- meet the Biblical standard.

And Smiths fruits? Smith testified of Christ.

 

You have correctly pointed out that polygamy was accepted in the Bible. I agree. Therefore, one can't reject Smith's prophetic claims just because he had more than one wife. However, this does not mean that one must accept his prophetic claims just because he practiced polygamy.

This is some cognitive gymnastics.

There are many false prophecies in the Bible. Correct prophecies are not  a requirement for being a prophet. Per the Bible.

Also, which real prophets can be shown to have practiced polygamy?

Abraham married Hagar (Genesis 16:3), Keturah (Genesis 25:1) and other unnamed concubines (Genesis 25:6). Jacob (Genesis 29:21-30, Genesis 30:3-4, Genesis 30:9). Abijah had fourteen wives (2 Chronicles 13:21) and yet he is described as a righteous king of Judah who honored the Lord (2 Chronicles 13:8-12) and prosper in battle because of the Lord's blessing (2 Chronicles 13:16-18). Jehoiada, priest under king Joash had two wives (2 Chronicles 3:) and is described at his death as one who "had done good in Israel, both toward God and toward his house. [i.e. family]" (2 Chronicles 24:16).

 

Clearly Abraham and Jacob practiced polygamy.

Jacob violated Levitical law in marrying sisters. No consequence.

 

 

However, one can reject Smith based on other criteria, some of which were indeed Biblical, like various of the ten commandments.

Smith followed the 10 commandments. Polygamy was not against the rules in the Bible. Jacob violated Levitical law, and Levitical law does not apply to Christians.

 

Why is the standard the Bible?

I do not understand this question.

This was not the case for Jesus. Indeed, it didn’t even exist. I am using the standard you identified, and I might say, it is the only standard you identified. Are their fruits good or evil?

You brought up fruits, not me. But the fruits of Smith is testifying of Jesus Christ.

Why the Bible? The Bible was Smiths moral and ethical guide.

Marrying young women? Not against Bible teachings.

Polygamy? Not against Bible teachings.

Not giving women a choice on marriage? Not against Bible teachings.